deepmentorCAPF
Exam infoSearchStart studying
Test SeriesTest Series · Subject-wise

Mini-Test: Polity (Indian Political System)

Subject-wise 25-question CAPF Paper I polity mini-test with answer key and one-line explanations, authored practice not verbatim PYQs

CAPF wiki•9 min read•4 sections
At a glance
PaperPaper ISubjectPolity
Test SeriesMini TestPolityPaper 1Practice

Authored practice, not a verbatim PYQ. Twenty-five questions calibrated to the CAPF Paper I polity standard, with a deliberate weight on Fundamental Rights, emergency provisions, and the constitutional position of the armed forces, all of direct relevance to a future Assistant Commandant. Attempt closed-book in about 25 minutes, then check the key. Marking convention used in the answer key follows CAPF: each correct answer is worth the same, and a wrong answer carries one-third negative marking, so guess only when you can eliminate at least two options.

Questions

Q1The Preamble to the Constitution of India declares India to be all of the following except:
  1. ASovereign
  2. BSocialist
  3. CTheocratic
  4. DSecular
Q2The words "Socialist", "Secular" and "Integrity" were added to the Preamble by which amendment?
  1. A24th Amendment, 1971
  2. B42nd Amendment, 1976
  3. C44th Amendment, 1978
  4. D52nd Amendment, 1985
Q3Which Article empowers Parliament to restrict or abrogate the application of Fundamental Rights to members of the Armed Forces and forces charged with the maintenance of public order?
  1. AArticle 19
  2. BArticle 31
  3. CArticle 33
  4. DArticle 34

Q4 (statement-based). Consider the following about the writ of Habeas Corpus:

  1. It literally means "to have the body of".
  2. It can be issued against both public authorities and private individuals.
  3. It can be issued only by the Supreme Court, not by High Courts. Which are correct?
  • (a) 1 and 2 only
  • (b) 2 and 3 only
  • (c) 1 and 3 only
  • (d) 1, 2 and 3
Q5The Directive Principles of State Policy were borrowed from the Constitution of which country?
  1. AUnited States
  2. BIreland
  3. CCanada
  4. DAustralia
Q6Which one of the following is a Fundamental Duty under Article 51A?
  1. ATo pay taxes promptly
  2. BTo protect and improve the natural environment
  3. CTo vote in every general election
  4. DTo carry the Aadhaar card at all times
Q7A proclamation of National Emergency under Article 352 must be approved by both Houses of Parliament within:
  1. ATwo months
  2. BOne month
  3. CSix months
  4. DFourteen days
Q8During a National Emergency, the rights under which Articles cannot be suspended after the 44th Amendment, 1978?
  1. AArticles 14 and 19
  2. BArticles 20 and 21
  3. CArticles 25 and 26
  4. DArticles 29 and 30
Q9The basic structure doctrine of the Constitution was propounded by the Supreme Court in:
  1. AGolaknath case, 1967
  2. BKesavananda Bharati case, 1973
  3. CMinerva Mills case, 1980
  4. DManeka Gandhi case, 1978
Q10Match List I (Body) with List II (Status):
  1. AElection Commission of India 1. Statutory body
  2. BNational Human Rights Commission 2. Constitutional body
  3. CComptroller and Auditor General 3. Statutory body under Act of 1993
  4. DFinance Commission 4. Constitutional body Codes:
  5. AA-2, B-3, C-4, D-2
  6. BA-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
  7. CA-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
  8. DA-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
Q11The anti-defection law is contained in which Schedule of the Constitution?
  1. ANinth Schedule
  2. BTenth Schedule
  3. CEleventh Schedule
  4. DTwelfth Schedule
Q12Who is the constitutional head of the Union Executive?
  1. AThe Prime Minister
  2. BThe President
  3. CThe Vice-President
  4. DThe Chief Justice of India
Q13The 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendments, 1992, deal with:
  1. ACentre-State financial relations
  2. BReservation in promotions
  3. CPanchayati Raj and urban local bodies
  4. DGoods and Services Tax

Q14 (assertion-reason). Assertion (A): The Right to Property is no longer a Fundamental Right. Reason (R): It was deleted from Part III and made a legal right under Article 300A by the 44th Amendment, 1978.

  • (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
  • (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
  • (c) A is true but R is false
  • (d) A is false but R is true
Q15Which Article provides the Right to Constitutional Remedies, allowing a citizen to approach the Supreme Court directly?
  1. AArticle 19
  2. BArticle 21
  3. CArticle 32
  4. DArticle 226
Q16The Rajya Sabha is a permanent House; what fraction of its members retire every second year?
  1. AOne-half
  2. BOne-third
  3. COne-fourth
  4. DOne-sixth
Q17Which of these is the correct sequence of subjects from the Seventh Schedule that a State legislature can normally legislate on without Union approval?
  1. ADefence and Foreign affairs
  2. BPublic order and Police
  3. CAtomic energy and Currency
  4. DCitizenship and Railways
Q18The National Human Rights Commission was set up under:
  1. AThe Constitution itself
  2. BThe Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993
  3. CThe Right to Information Act, 2005
  4. DAn executive order of the Union Cabinet
Q19Money Bills can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha and only on the recommendation of:
  1. AThe Speaker
  2. BThe President
  3. CThe Council of Ministers
  4. DThe Comptroller and Auditor General

Q20 (statement-based). Consider the following about the President's pardoning power under Article 72:

  1. It includes the power to grant pardon in cases of court-martial.
  2. It includes the power to pardon a death sentence.
  3. The Governor under Article 161 can pardon a death sentence. Which are correct?
  • (a) 1 and 2 only
  • (b) 2 and 3 only
  • (c) 1 and 3 only
  • (d) 1, 2 and 3
Q21Which writ is issued to quash an order already passed by a lower court or tribunal acting without jurisdiction?
  1. AMandamus
  2. BQuo Warranto
  3. CCertiorari
  4. DProhibition
Q22Under the Constitution, the imposition of President's Rule in a State is provided by:
  1. AArticle 352
  2. BArticle 356
  3. CArticle 360
  4. DArticle 365
Q23The doctrine that allows courts to declare a law void to the extent of its inconsistency with Fundamental Rights is contained in:
  1. AArticle 12
  2. BArticle 13
  3. CArticle 14
  4. DArticle 15
Q24A person aggrieved by detention under a preventive detention law has its safeguards in:
  1. AArticle 20
  2. BArticle 21
  3. CArticle 22
  4. DArticle 23
Q25Which one of the following correctly pairs an emergency with its Article?
  1. ANational Emergency, Article 356
  2. BFinancial Emergency, Article 360
  3. CState Emergency, Article 352
  4. DFinancial Emergency, Article 365

Answer key

Reveal the answer key and full worked solutions
Q Answer
1 (c) Theocratic
2 (b) 42nd Amendment, 1976
3 (c) Article 33
4 (a) 1 and 2 only
5 (b) Ireland
6 (b) To protect and improve the natural environment
7 (b) One month
8 (b) Articles 20 and 21
9 (b) Kesavananda Bharati case, 1973
10 (a) A-2, B-3, C-4, D-2
11 (b) Tenth Schedule
12 (b) The President
13 (c) Panchayati Raj and urban local bodies
14 (a) Both A and R true, R is the correct explanation
15 (c) Article 32
16 (b) One-third
17 (b) Public order and Police
18 (b) Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993
19 (b) The President
20 (a) 1 and 2 only
21 (c) Certiorari
22 (b) Article 356
23 (b) Article 13
24 (c) Article 22
25 (b) Financial Emergency, Article 360

Explanations

  • Q1. India is declared Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic and a Republic; it is never described as theocratic, indeed secularism is a basic feature. See preamble and features of the constitution.
  • Q2. The 42nd Amendment, 1976, the "Mini-Constitution", added Socialist, Secular and Integrity to the Preamble. See amendments and basic structure.
  • Q3. Article 33 lets Parliament modify Fundamental Rights for the armed forces and forces charged with maintaining public order, a clause that directly shapes service discipline in the CAPFs. See fundamental rights.
  • Q4. Habeas Corpus means "to have the body" and is the only writ that can run against private individuals as well as the State; both the Supreme Court (Article 32) and High Courts (Article 226) can issue it, so statement 3 is wrong. See fundamental rights.
  • Q5. The Directive Principles in Part IV (Articles 36 to 51) were taken from the Irish Constitution. See directive principles and fundamental duties.
  • Q6. Protecting and improving the natural environment is an express Fundamental Duty under Article 51A(g); paying taxes and carrying documents are not listed. See directive principles and fundamental duties.
  • Q7. The 44th Amendment reduced the approval window to one month from the original two months. See citizenship and emergency provisions.
  • Q8. After the 44th Amendment, Articles 20 (protection in respect of conviction) and 21 (life and personal liberty) cannot be suspended even during a National Emergency. See citizenship and emergency provisions.
  • Q9. Kesavananda Bharati v State of Kerala (1973) laid down the basic structure doctrine; Golaknath preceded it and Minerva Mills reaffirmed it. See amendments and basic structure.
  • Q10. The ECI (label 2), CAG (label 4) and Finance Commission (label 2) are constitutional bodies; the NHRC (label 3) is a statutory body under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993, so the matching is A-2, B-3, C-4, D-2. See constitutional and statutory bodies.
  • Q11. The Tenth Schedule, added by the 52nd Amendment, 1985, holds the anti-defection provisions. See parliament.
  • Q12. The President is the constitutional head of the Union Executive (Article 52), while the Prime Minister heads the real executive. See union executive.
  • Q13. The 73rd Amendment created Panchayati Raj and the 74th created municipalities, adding the Eleventh and Twelfth Schedules respectively. See local government.
  • Q14. The Right to Property was deleted from Part III by the 44th Amendment and re-enacted as a legal right under Article 300A; R correctly explains A. See fundamental rights.
  • Q15. Article 32, the Right to Constitutional Remedies, lets a citizen move the Supreme Court directly; Ambedkar called it the heart and soul of the Constitution. See fundamental rights.
  • Q16. One-third of Rajya Sabha members retire every second year, giving the House its permanent character. See parliament.
  • Q17. Public order and Police are State List entries (entries 1 and 2), while defence, currency and railways are Union List subjects. See federalism and centre state relations.
  • Q18. The NHRC is a statutory body created by the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993, chaired by a former CJI or Supreme Court Judge. See human rights and internal security.
  • Q19. A Money Bill (Article 110) originates only in the Lok Sabha and only on the President's recommendation. See parliament.
  • Q20. The President's pardoning power under Article 72 covers court-martial sentences and death sentences; the Governor under Article 161 cannot pardon a death sentence, so statement 3 is wrong. See union executive.
  • Q21. Certiorari quashes an order already passed without jurisdiction, while Prohibition stops proceedings still in progress. See fundamental rights.
  • Q22. Article 356 provides for President's Rule (State Emergency) on failure of constitutional machinery in a State. See citizenship and emergency provisions.
  • Q23. Article 13 makes laws inconsistent with Fundamental Rights void to the extent of the inconsistency and is the basis of judicial review. See fundamental rights.
  • Q24. Article 22 gives safeguards against arrest and detention, including specific protections under preventive detention laws. See fundamental rights.
  • Q25. Financial Emergency is provided by Article 360; National Emergency is Article 352 and President's Rule is Article 356. See citizenship and emergency provisions.

Cross-references

← BackAll of Test Series