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Polity PYQ Practice: Set 09

Authored CAPF-level polity MCQs (hardest) on federalism, local government, elections, parties and amendments, with answer key and explanations, not verbatim PYQs

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Authored practice, not a verbatim PYQ. Twenty-five questions on federalism and centre-state relations, local self-government, the electoral system, political parties and the amendment process. Attempt closed-book, then check the key. For year-sensitive numbers, verify the latest.

Questions

Q1The distribution of legislative powers between the Union and the States is set out in:

AThe First Schedule
BThe Seventh Schedule
CThe Tenth Schedule
DThe Eleventh Schedule

Q2The power to legislate on a subject in the Concurrent List, where Union and State laws conflict, is resolved by:

AThe State law prevailing always
BThe Union law prevailing (with a saving for State laws reserved for presidential assent)
CThe matter going to arbitration
DBoth being void

Q3 (statement-based). Consider the following about residuary powers:

Residuary powers of legislation are vested in Parliament.
They cover matters not enumerated in any of the three lists.
The power to tax services was originally treated as a residuary subject. How many are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Q4Under Article 356, the President's Rule in a State is based on the failure of:

AThe monsoon
BThe constitutional machinery in the State
CThe State's finances only
DLocal elections

Q5 (assertion-reason). Assertion (A): The scope for misuse of Article 356 has been narrowed. Reason (R): The Supreme Court in S R Bommai (1994) made the proclamation of President's Rule subject to judicial review and required a floor test.

(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, R is false
(d) A is false, R is true

Q6The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992, gave constitutional status to:

ACooperative societies
BPanchayati Raj institutions (rural local government)
CMunicipalities
DTribunals

Q7The 74th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992, deals with:

ARural local government
BUrban local government (municipalities)
CAnti-defection
DThe official language

Q8Match List I (Schedule) with List II (Subject):

AEleventh Schedule
BTwelfth Schedule
CSixth Schedule
DFifth Schedule

Administration of tribal areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram
Powers and functions of Panchayats
Administration of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes
Powers and functions of Municipalities Codes:

(a) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3
(b) A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3
(c) A-2, B-4, C-3, D-1
(d) A-1, B-4, C-2, D-3

Q9The reservation of seats for women in Panchayats under the 73rd Amendment is, at minimum:

AOne-tenth
BOne-fourth
COne-third
DOne-half

Q10A "State Election Commission" appointed under Article 243K is responsible for elections to:

AParliament
BPanchayats and Municipalities
CThe Rajya Sabha
DThe office of President

Q11 (statement-based). Consider the following about the Election Commission of India:

It is a multi-member body since 1993.
The Chief Election Commissioner can be removed in the same manner as a Supreme Court judge.
The other Election Commissioners can be removed by the CEC at will. How many are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Q12The "Model Code of Conduct" enforced during elections is:

AA statutory law passed by Parliament
BA set of guidelines evolved by consensus and enforced by the Election Commission
CPart of the Constitution
DIssued by the Supreme Court

Q13The Tenth Schedule of the Constitution deals with:

ALanguages
BAnti-defection (disqualification on grounds of defection)
CPanchayats
DUnion and State lists

Q14 (assertion-reason). Assertion (A): A Speaker's decision under the anti-defection law is subject to judicial review. Reason (R): In Kihoto Hollohan (1992) the Supreme Court held that the Presiding Officer acts as a tribunal whose decisions can be reviewed.

(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, R is false
(d) A is false, R is true

Q15The recognition of national and state political parties is done by:

AThe Supreme Court
BThe Election Commission of India
CParliament
DThe President

Q16"Pressure groups" differ from political parties chiefly because they:

AAlways contest elections
BSeek to influence policy without seeking to capture political power directly
CAre registered under the Constitution
DCan form governments

Q17A Constitutional Amendment Bill under Article 368 generally requires:

AA simple majority in both Houses
BA special majority in each House (and, for certain provisions, ratification by half the States)
CA referendum
DApproval of the Supreme Court

Q18 (statement-based). Consider the following provisions requiring ratification by States for amendment:

The election of the President.
The distribution of legislative powers between the Union and the States.
Representation of States in Parliament. How many require ratification by at least half the State legislatures?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Q19The "doctrine of basic structure" limits which power?

AThe executive's ordinance power
BThe constituent power of Parliament to amend the Constitution
CThe judiciary's review power
DThe President's veto

Q20The 42nd Amendment, 1976, is often called the "Mini-Constitution" because it:

AMade only one change
BMade wide-ranging changes including to the Preamble and Directive Principles
CAbolished the Rajya Sabha
DCreated new States

Q21Match List I (Amendment) with List II (Major change):

A42nd Amendment
B44th Amendment
C73rd Amendment
D101st Amendment

Goods and Services Tax
Panchayati Raj constitutional status
Added "Socialist", "Secular" and "Integrity" to the Preamble
Right to property ceased to be a Fundamental Right Codes:

(a) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1
(b) A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1
(c) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
(d) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2

Q22Cooperative societies were given constitutional recognition by which amendment?

A73rd Amendment
B74th Amendment
C97th Amendment
D101st Amendment

Q23 (assertion-reason). Assertion (A): India is described as a "federation with a strong centralising tendency". Reason (R): Features such as a single Constitution, single citizenship, an integrated judiciary, All India Services and emergency provisions tilt the balance towards the Union.

(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, R is false
(d) A is false, R is true

Q24The Inter-State Council to discuss disputes and coordinate policy among States is established under:

AArticle 263
BArticle 280
CArticle 324
DArticle 356

Q25Which of the following best describes the nature of Indian federalism as tested by the CAPF exam?

AA confederation of sovereign States
BA unitary state with no division of powers
CA quasi-federal system, federal in form but with a strong unitary bias, especially in emergencies
DA purely federal system identical to the United States

Answer key

Reveal the answer key and full worked solutions

Q	Answer
1	(b) The Seventh Schedule
2	(b) The Union law prevailing
3	(c) All three
4	(b) Failure of the constitutional machinery in the State
5	(a) Both true, R is the correct explanation
6	(b) Panchayati Raj institutions
7	(b) Urban local government
8	(a) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3
9	(c) One-third
10	(b) Panchayats and Municipalities
11	(b) Only two
12	(b) Guidelines enforced by the Election Commission
13	(b) Anti-defection
14	(a) Both true, R is the correct explanation
15	(b) The Election Commission of India
16	(b) Influence policy without capturing power directly
17	(b) Special majority, with State ratification for some provisions
18	(c) All three
19	(b) The constituent power of Parliament
20	(b) Wide-ranging changes
21	(a) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1
22	(c) 97th Amendment
23	(a) Both true, R is the correct explanation
24	(a) Article 263
25	(c) A quasi-federal system with a strong unitary bias

Explanations

Q1. The Seventh Schedule contains the Union, State and Concurrent Lists. See the schedules of the constitution and federalism and centre state relations.
Q2. On the Concurrent List a Union law generally prevails over a conflicting State law, subject to the saving where the State law is reserved for and receives presidential assent. See federalism and centre state relations.
Q3. All three are correct: residuary powers vest in Parliament, cover unenumerated matters, and the taxation of services was historically treated as residuary before GST. See federalism and centre state relations.
Q4. Article 356 applies when the President is satisfied that the State's constitutional machinery has failed. See citizenship and emergency provisions and federalism and centre state relations.
Q5. Both true and correctly linked: S R Bommai (1994) made the proclamation judicially reviewable and required a floor test. See citizenship and emergency provisions.
Q6. The 73rd Amendment gave constitutional status to Panchayati Raj rural local government. See local government.
Q7. The 74th Amendment concerns urban local government (municipalities). See local government.
Q8. Eleventh Schedule (Panchayats), Twelfth Schedule (Municipalities), Sixth Schedule (tribal areas of the north-east), Fifth Schedule (Scheduled Areas and Tribes). See the schedules of the constitution and local government.
Q9. Not less than one-third of seats in Panchayats are reserved for women under the 73rd Amendment. See local government.
Q10. The State Election Commission under Article 243K conducts Panchayat and Municipality elections. See local government and electoral system and reforms.
Q11. Statements 1 and 2 are correct; the other Commissioners cannot be removed by the CEC at will (the CEC can only recommend), so statement 3 is false. See constitutional and statutory bodies and electoral system and reforms.
Q12. The Model Code of Conduct is a set of consensus guidelines enforced by the Election Commission, not a statute. See electoral system and reforms.
Q13. The Tenth Schedule contains the anti-defection provisions. See anti defection and tenth schedule and the schedules of the constitution.
Q14. Both true and correctly linked: Kihoto Hollohan (1992) held the Presiding Officer acts as a tribunal subject to judicial review. See anti defection and tenth schedule.
Q15. The Election Commission recognises national and state parties and allots symbols. See political parties and pressure groups and electoral system and reforms.
Q16. Pressure groups seek to influence policy without directly seeking to capture political power. See political parties and pressure groups.
Q17. Article 368 generally requires a special majority, with ratification by half the States for federal provisions. See amendments and basic structure.
Q18. All three require State ratification, as they affect the federal balance (presidential election, division of powers, representation of States). See amendments and basic structure and federalism and centre state relations.
Q19. The basic structure doctrine limits Parliament's constituent (amending) power. See amendments and basic structure.
Q20. The 42nd Amendment made wide-ranging changes, earning the "Mini-Constitution" label. See amendments and basic structure and directive principles and fundamental duties.
Q21. 42nd (Preamble words), 44th (right to property), 73rd (Panchayats), 101st (GST). See amendments and basic structure.
Q22. The 97th Amendment gave cooperative societies constitutional recognition. See amendments and basic structure.
Q23. Both true and correctly linked: single Constitution, single citizenship, integrated judiciary, All India Services and emergency provisions explain the centralising tilt. See federalism and centre state relations.
Q24. The Inter-State Council is established under Article 263. See federalism and centre state relations.
Q25. Indian federalism is quasi-federal, federal in form but with a strong unitary bias, especially during emergencies. See federalism and centre state relations.

Cross-references

Framework and honesty rule: 00 pipeline
Polity module index: Index
Previous set: set 08 · First set: set 01

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