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Polity PYQ Practice: Set 06

Authored CAPF-level polity MCQs (hardest, security and human-rights focus) on internal security law, AFSPA, transparency and special provisions, with answer key and explanations, not verbatim PYQs

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PaperPaper ISubjectPolity

Authored practice, not a verbatim PYQ. Twenty-five questions on the security and human-rights dimension that the CAPF exam emphasises: internal security law, AFSPA, the human-rights machinery, transparency law, official language and special provisions. Attempt closed-book, then check the key.

Questions

Q1The Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act is enforced in areas declared as:
  1. AScheduled areas
  2. BDisturbed areas
  3. CCantonment areas
  4. DBorder areas
Q2Under AFSPA, the power to declare an area "disturbed" is exercised by:
  1. AThe local police only
  2. BThe Governor of the state or the Central Government
  3. CThe Supreme Court
  4. DThe District Magistrate alone

Q3 (statement-based). Consider the following about the human-rights debate over AFSPA:

  1. The Justice Jeevan Reddy Committee (2005) recommended its repeal.
  2. The Supreme Court in Naga People's Movement of Human Rights (1998) upheld its constitutional validity.
  3. AFSPA gives complete and unreviewable immunity to security personnel. How many are correct?
  • (a) Only one
  • (b) Only two
  • (c) All three
  • (d) None
Q4The Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act (UAPA) primarily deals with:
  1. ALand reforms
  2. BTerrorism and unlawful associations
  3. CForeign trade
  4. DInter-state water disputes
Q5Which Article empowers Parliament to make laws restricting Fundamental Rights of forces engaged in maintaining public order, a key constitutional basis for special security laws affecting personnel?
  1. AArticle 21
  2. BArticle 22
  3. CArticle 33
  4. DArticle 35

Q6 (assertion-reason). Assertion (A): The NHRC has limited jurisdiction over human-rights violations by the armed forces. Reason (R): Under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993, the NHRC can only seek a report from the Central Government and make recommendations in cases involving the armed forces.

  • (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
  • (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
  • (c) A is true, R is false
  • (d) A is false, R is true
Q7Preventive detention laws find their constitutional anchor in:
  1. AArticle 19
  2. BArticle 20
  3. CArticle 21
  4. DArticle 22
Q8The maximum period of preventive detention without reference to an Advisory Board, as originally fixed in Article 22, was:
  1. AOne month
  2. BTwo months
  3. CThree months
  4. DSix months
Q9Match List I (Law or body) with List II (Domain):
  1. AAFSPA
  2. BNHRC
  3. CUAPA
  4. DRTI Act
  1. Designation of terrorist organisations
  2. Special powers to the armed forces in disturbed areas
  3. Citizens' access to government information
  4. Inquiry into human-rights violations Codes:
  • (a) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3
  • (b) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
  • (c) A-1, B-4, C-2, D-3
  • (d) A-2, B-4, C-3, D-1
Q10The Right to Information Act, 2005, designates which authority at the central level to hear second appeals?
  1. AThe Supreme Court
  2. BThe Central Information Commission
  3. CThe Lokpal
  4. DThe Comptroller and Auditor General
Q11Which of the following is exempt from disclosure under the RTI Act on grounds of national security and sovereignty?
  1. AThe salary of a public servant
  2. BInformation whose disclosure would prejudicially affect the security of the State
  3. CThe minutes of a routine departmental meeting
  4. DThe text of a passed law

Q12 (statement-based). Consider the following about Article 21 as interpreted by the courts:

  1. The right to life includes the right to live with human dignity.
  2. Custodial deaths and torture violate Article 21.
  3. The right to a speedy trial flows from Article 21. How many are correct?
  • (a) Only one
  • (b) Only two
  • (c) All three
  • (d) None
Q13The D K Basu guidelines of the Supreme Court relate to:
  1. AReservation policy
  2. BProcedures during arrest and detention to prevent custodial abuse
  3. CInter-state water sharing
  4. DAnti-defection
Q14The Official Language of the Union, as per Article 343, is:
  1. AEnglish only
  2. BHindi in the Devanagari script
  3. CSanskrit
  4. DHindi and English with equal status forever
Q15The Eighth Schedule of the Constitution currently lists how many languages (verify the latest)?
  1. A18
  2. B20
  3. C22
  4. D25

Q16 (assertion-reason). Assertion (A): Article 370 conferred a special status on Jammu and Kashmir. Reason (R): In 2019, the operation of Article 370 was modified and the state was reorganised into Union Territories.

  • (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
  • (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
  • (c) A is true, R is false
  • (d) A is false, R is true
Q17Which constitutional body has the mandate to investigate matters relating to the safeguards for linguistic minorities under Article 350B?
  1. AThe Election Commission
  2. BThe Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities
  3. CThe Finance Commission
  4. DThe NITI Aayog
Q18The doctrine that arrested persons must be informed of the grounds of arrest and produced before a magistrate within 24 hours is found in:
  1. AArticle 19
  2. BArticle 20
  3. CArticle 22(1) and 22(2)
  4. DArticle 25

Q19 (statement-based). Consider the following about the deployment of Central Armed Police Forces (CAPFs):

  1. Law and order and police are primarily State subjects.
  2. CAPFs can be deployed in a state at the Union's initiative or on a state's request.
  3. The Union's duty to protect states under Article 355 supports such deployment. How many are correct?
  • (a) Only one
  • (b) Only two
  • (c) All three
  • (d) None
Q20The right against self-incrimination, that no person accused of an offence shall be compelled to be a witness against himself, is guaranteed by:
  1. AArticle 20(1)
  2. BArticle 20(2)
  3. CArticle 20(3)
  4. DArticle 21
Q21Match List I (Provision) with List II (Protection):
  1. AArticle 20(1)
  2. BArticle 20(2)
  3. CArticle 20(3)
  4. DArticle 22(1)
  1. No double jeopardy
  2. No self-incrimination
  3. Right to consult a legal practitioner of choice
  4. No ex post facto criminal law Codes:
  • (a) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3
  • (b) A-1, B-4, C-2, D-3
  • (c) A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3
  • (d) A-4, B-1, C-3, D-2
Q22Which international instrument, ratified by India, shapes domestic human-rights jurisprudence relevant to custodial safeguards?
  1. AThe Universal Declaration of Human Rights, 1948, and the ICCPR, 1966
  2. BThe Vienna Convention on the Law of Treaties only
  3. CThe Geneva Conventions only
  4. DThe Outer Space Treaty
Q23A writ of Habeas Corpus is the most direct judicial protection against:
  1. AExcessive taxation
  2. BUnlawful or arbitrary detention
  3. CDefamation
  4. DBreach of contract

Q24 (assertion-reason). Assertion (A): Even during a National Emergency, the protection of Articles 20 and 21 cannot be suspended. Reason (R): The 44th Amendment, 1978, removed the power to suspend Articles 20 and 21 during an emergency, a key human-rights safeguard.

  • (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
  • (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
  • (c) A is true, R is false
  • (d) A is false, R is true
Q25Which of the following best captures the constitutional balance the CAPF exam tests on internal security?
  1. ASecurity powers are absolute and not subject to rights
  2. BFundamental Rights always override all security needs without exception
  3. CSpecial security powers exist but remain subject to constitutional limits, judicial review and human-rights safeguards
  4. DThe judiciary has no role in security matters

Answer key

Reveal the answer key and full worked solutions
Q Answer
1 (b) Disturbed areas
2 (b) The Governor of the state or the Central Government
3 (b) Only two
4 (b) Terrorism and unlawful associations
5 (c) Article 33
6 (a) Both true, R is the correct explanation
7 (d) Article 22
8 (c) Three months
9 (a) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3
10 (b) The Central Information Commission
11 (b) Information prejudicial to the security of the State
12 (c) All three
13 (b) Procedures during arrest and detention
14 (b) Hindi in the Devanagari script
15 (c) 22
16 (b) Both true, R not the correct explanation
17 (b) The Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities
18 (c) Article 22(1) and 22(2)
19 (c) All three
20 (c) Article 20(3)
21 (a) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3
22 (a) UDHR 1948 and ICCPR 1966
23 (b) Unlawful or arbitrary detention
24 (a) Both true, R is the correct explanation
25 (c) Special powers subject to limits, review and human-rights safeguards

Explanations

Cross-references

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